How come Harry possessed the ability to sense other horcruxes in the later films(can't remember if he also had the ability in the later books as well), but his scar doesn't hurt and he can't sense the diary in Chamber of Secrets?

 

The films are not canon so we have no reliable information. Harry was not able to sense Horcruxes in the books.

 

Another question, but if a person uses Occlumency, will a Boggart not be able to read their mind? I assume that a Boggart would have to see a person's mind to maybe know what they fear, but I could be wrong.

 

IIRC the books are silent on that subject.

 

Occlumency protects from legilimency(books), veritiserum(WOG), and possibly possesion(WOMBAT, inconclusive). It also protects from other forms of external penetration of the mind(Severus Snape, books). Take from that what you will.
Nobody knows what a boggart looks like in its natural state because it instantly takes the form of a persons worst fear when it is seen(Remus lupin, books). If occlumency worked on them, I assume someone would know what they look like in their natural state, so it is likely occlumency is ineffective.

 

What date was the fight between Quirrelmort and Harry during book 1?
What date did he wake up in the Hospital wing?
What date was the Graveyard in book 4?
Edit: at what date do the students in Harry Potter leave Hogwarts in book 1?

 

One word... Google

 

No. The only useful link is the Harry Potter Wiki, which although provides dates, also provides [citation needed]. I don't trust the wiki.
I am not sure if your post, Bramastra, technically breaks the rules in the OP, but it is lacking in information.

Edit: in retrospect, I'm not entirely sure if my post is allowed by the rules either. Still, I am asking for clarification, so probably.

 

I don't think it ever mentioned how long he was asleep but it wasn't suggested to be more than a few hours. The quirrell thing happened at night and I think he was awake the next day. This was all just a few days before the end of year feast so it was probably sometime late june, unless Hogwarts terms end at a weird time which was never mentioned.

The graveyard took place after the end of year exams so probably also late june.

 

Honestly surprised that so few DLPers know about the HP Lexicon. This is the second time in not so long that I've posted about it. Maybe I should make a thread.

Here's the overall timeline. They also have day to day calendars for canon events. If you want to know how they got their information and such, they discuss it somewhere but I'm too lazy to look for it. Basically I know that they try to be as accurate as possible, and they tell you if something is speculation.

June 4, 1992.

June 8, 1992.

June 24, 1995. This was also the date of the History exam, which Harry didn't have to take. They go back home July 3rd.

June 20, 1992. Their exam results came back on the 11th.

Seems rather silly that in GoF they sit their exams and go home so late, but I suppose that's just because JKR didn't care much about dates; the story was the concern.

 

Nevermind, not within the rules of this thread.

 

When's the earliest we could place the Longbottom torture, without contradicting canon?

It happened, after Voldemort tried to kill Harry - and we know Belatrix was trying to find out something about Voldemort's fate.

Could it have happened during the "missing 24 hours"?

Depending on the answer(s), I might create a new thread.

 

The Lestranges and Barty Jr. attacked the Longbottoms 'when we thought we were all safe'. I take that to mean at least a few weeks after Dumbledore announced Voldemort's defeat and the Ministry had gotten busy with the roundup of Death Eaters like Avery, Dolohov and Karkaroff. The Longbottoms were very popular (only Frank is mentioned as an Auror, by the way), and their attack threw everyone into a rage, such that they were willing to do a deal with Karkaroff to get more names to feed the public hunger for revenge. In the book, Karkaroff makes no mention of the Lestranges or of the attack on the Longbottoms; that was the film conjoining four memories into one.

 

Why was the Order so focused on Voldemort not getting his hands on the prophecy in OotP?

I mean, Voldemort knows the first part: "There's a person being born right now with the power to defeat you." Voldemort then makes the deduction that it's Harry.

Like Dumbledore points out, if he'd known the second part back then, he'd have been a lot more careful going after Harry, but that's over and done with.

The second part basically says, "Harry has a Mysterious Power. One of you ends up killing the other one."

What about that is dangerous for Voldemort to know? Is he going to try to kill Harry harder?

 

A tool used by JKR to kill off Sirius.

 

I don't know, Newcomb, and I don't think it's explicitally stated in canon. I think yours is a question better suited to its own thread, as there isn't a simple answer.

 

I guess my question, in a refined form, is "Is there a simple answer?"

My original assumption was that I was forgetting some key but oft-overlooked piece of information from canon that explained this.

 

I got this from the HP Wikia page on the prophecy:

Dumbledore's reasoning is that Voldemort feels it will help him defeat his vanquisher. I personally believe, and keep in mind that this is mainly speculation, that the full prophecy doesn't matter that much. But Voldemort believes it does, and will thus expand significant effort into acquiring it, effort that could be used more beneficially instead. Dumbledore feeds this speculation, trying to prevent Voldemort from getting the prophecy, not by destroying it, but by leaving it tantalisingly close, so that Voldemort can't resist pooling his resources into that. A similar reasoning can be found in the Philoserpher's stone with Fluffy and the Mirror of Erised, I think.

 

I don't think it had anything to do with the prophecy itself; I doubt Dumbledore really cared if Voldemort had the full thing. Like you said, it doesn't give much else away. By Harry's fifth year, Voldemort would still have to confront Harry head on to restore his pride and his followers' faith, and Harry would still confront Voldemort head on to avenge his parents and protect his friends.

But keeping the whole thing shrouded in mystery did two things: 1) Gave the Order the sense that Harry may be capable of much more than the average teen, thus ensuring that they follow Dumbledore's judgement and trust Harry, 2) Strategy.

You know. Keep the terrorists busy focusing on something of little value so they have less time to achieve their nefarious goals. Yes, they were productive in other areas, such as recruiting giants and such, but they wasted a lot of resources and time dancing about with the Order around the Department of Mysterious. Well, they seem to, at least.

Also, it probably helped weed out some ministry members as potential Death Eaters. While it was a given that Lucius Malfoy was a Death Eater, other workers lurking around the Department of Mysteries or getting cozy with Unspeakables would raise some red flags for Order members. The Order wouldn't have that sort of intelligence if they didn't have the opportunity to really watch for Death Eaters. They knew exactly what the enemy wanted and they knew the only way for them to get it was by that one entrance (probably), so those checking out the scene would be easy to spot; they can't exactly scope out some Death Eater that was given some assignment the Order knows nothing about, but they can look out for them if they know where to look.

... So no, no simple answer. This could probably be an interesting thread topic. See others' take on the matter.

Edit: Ninja'd by readerboy.

 

I am not sure if this question has been discussed before, but I couldn't find anything, so here it goes.

Dumbledore tells Harry in first year that it was his mother's love that protects him from Voldemort. He later goes on to say that Love is the 'power he knows not'.

In GoF, Voldemort explains to his death eaters in the graveyard that it was Harry's mother that provided the protection. While he doesn't call it love, he clearly understands the magic Lily Potter used, well enough to devise a counter to it (using Harry's blood).

Isn't this a contradiction? Either Lily's protection isn't love, or love isn't the 'power he knows not'. How can it be both?

Am I making sense here, or am I just thinking like a muggle?

EDIT: I'm not sure if this breaks the rules, since it might be categorized as speculation, but I just want to know if there is a Canon answer to the question, maybe something I missed?